When we solve an ODE with regular singular point,we usually
use Frobenius series method and when the difference between
the two indicial roots( R1-R2 )is zero, the first solution
is the Frobenius solution with R=R1, but I don't understand
why that the second solution is derived by partial derivative
of y with respect to R at R=R1, can anybody tell me~~
Thanks~
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