[分析] 請教一題實變

[OSGrup (open將真的很可愛)]

Let f_n(x) = (cosx)^n , n=1,2,... on [0,π]. Does {f_n} converges in measure

on [0,π]?

請指教 謝謝

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推 Natsutaka:在finite-measure set上，只要 f_n -> f a.e.
→ Natsutaka:則 f_n -> f in measure