精華區beta Math 關於我們 聯絡資訊
※ 引述《weibo (打混鬼)》之銘言: : Q: (X,d) be a metric space. Prove that F1 and F2 are two disjoint : closed sets in X, then exists two open sets in X, O1)F1, and O2)F2, : such taht O1 interaction O2 = empty : 請大家幫幫忙了!!我想了好久都不知道怎麼下筆阿!! : 謝謝囉!! 我的想法是直接建構 Given that F1 and F2 are two disjoint closed sets in X, we know that any p in F1 does not lie in the closure of F2. Then there exists r>0 such that N (p) does not intersect F2. r (here N (p) denotes the open neighborhood of p with radius r) r Not let L be the set of open neighborhoods mentioned above, with radius r/2 i.e. L={ N (p) | p in F1 and N (p) does not intersect F2} r/2 r and let M={ N (p) | p in F2 and N (p) does not intersect F1} r/2 r Then the Union of L is an open cover of F1, the Union of M is an open cover of F2, and L and M are disjoint. Thus we have proved their existence. 以上是我的想法 有錯請指正 -- ※ 發信站: 批踢踢實業坊(ptt.cc) ◆ From: 165.124.140.16
math1209 :請問由哪知:L and M are disjoint? 10/22 21:04
math1209 :我的顧慮是: L 中的球 與 M 中的球或許有相交. 10/22 21:05
FANggot :所以才會用r/2 不然球會相交 10/23 02:02
math1209 :還是有可能會交在一起. 畢竟存在 d(F_1,F_2) = 0. 10/23 05:14
讓我講述一下我的想法&疑問 If p is in f1, and f1 and f2 are disjoint closed sets, then f1 and f2 are seperated. Which inplies that d(p,f2) = inf{d(p,y):y in f2}=/=0 http://ppt.cc/982y (wiki連結 該條目第四行說 d(p,f2)=0 if and only if p belongs to the closure of f2). Because we know p does not lie in the closure of f2 (by the fact that f1 and f2 are seperated), we know d(p,f2)=/=0 所以就每一點p in f1而言, 都可以有一個0<r<inf{d(p,y):y in f2}=/=0 讓N (p) 與f2不相交 r 以下是證明L,M does not intersect: If some q lies in the intersection of L and M, then q is in some N (p1), p1 in f1, (r1)/2 and q is also in some N (p2), p2 in f2. (r2)/2 We know d(p1,p2) > (r1) and d(p1,p2) > (r2), (this implies d(p1,p2)>(r1+r2)/2) However d(q,p1) < (r1)/2, d(q,p2) < (r2)/2, so d(p1,p2) < d(p1,q) + d(q,p2) < (r1 + r2)/2 = which is a contradiction. 但是我的疑問是 d(f1,f2)=0 我想不透為什麼這樣就表示球會相交 有點搞不懂 若是定義 d(f1,f2) = inf{d(x,y) : x in f1 and y in f2} then by definition of f1 and f2, 0 is NOT a member of {d(x,y): x in f1 and y in f2} (assume 0 is a member of {d(x,y): x in f1 and y in f2} then some d(x,y)=0, but that is equivalent to saying x=y, which would contradict to the fact that f1 and f2 are disjoint closed sets ) 所以d(x,y)>0 for all x in f1 and y in f2 就算infimum 是0, 那只表示for and d(x,y)>0, there is a d(x',y') such that 0<d(x',y')<d(x,y) 但是這些x',y' 如果x'=x (或是y'=y) 那上面已經證明 0<d(x,f1)<d(x, y) for all y in f2 了 = 若是x', y'=/= x, y 那也與我的論點也不相違背 所以我不知道d(f1,f2)=0會怎麼矛盾 可以指出我的錯誤嗎? ※ 編輯: FANggot 來自: 199.74.85.253 (10/23 07:41)
FANggot :請板友幫忙解惑<(_ _)> 10/23 07:42
※ 編輯: FANggot 來自: 199.74.85.253 (10/23 08:06) ※ 編輯: FANggot 來自: 199.74.85.253 (10/23 08:30) ※ 編輯: FANggot 來自: 199.74.85.253 (10/23 08:34) ※ 編輯: FANggot 來自: 199.74.85.253 (10/23 08:36)
math1209 :你可以不用管我說的. 我想知道你證明中... 10/23 10:03
math1209 :We know d(p1,p2) > (r1) and d(p1,p2) > (r2),why? 10/23 10:03
FANggot :依照我建構的方法 N (p1)與f2不相交, p2 is in f2 10/23 10:15
FANggot : r1 10/23 10:15
FANggot :所以 d(p2,p1)>r1 同裡d(p1,p2)>r2 10/23 10:16
math1209 :ok. It is good. 10/23 10:52