精華區beta NTU-Exam 關於我們 聯絡資訊
課程名稱︰普通生物學乙上 課程性質︰必修 課程教師︰陳俊宏 開課學院:醫學院 開課系所︰醫學系 考試日期(年月日)︰2007/10/25 考試時限(分鐘):110min 是否需發放獎勵金:是 (如未明確表示,則不予發放) Ⅰ.Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. As obligate intracellular parasites, viruses have which of these characteristics? A. the ability to enter the cell, manufacture ATP, and degrade carbon-containing compounds. B. the ability to enter a cell and make more copies of themselves using host proteins. C. the ability to enter a cell and use ONLY viral proteins to make more copies of themselves. 2. Catabolite activator protein (CAP) activity is controlled at the __________ level. A. transcriptional B. translational C. post-translational 3. Which of the following statements applies to the lysogenic cycle? A. Viral proteins are made and used to replicate the viral genome. B. Viral particles are produced. C. The viral genome integrates into the host cell's genome. D. When the cell divides, the viral genome is frequently lost. 4. HIV contains an RNA genome in the viral particle. When the virus infects, the RNA is copied into DNA by the reverse transcriptase enzyme. Reverse transcriptase is a very sloppy enzyme and makes frequent mistakes. Which of the following statements is true due to this property of reverse transcriptase? A. It is very difficult to make a vaccine for HIV. B. HIV accumulates mutations in its genome. C. HIV evolves very quickly. D. All of the above answers apply. 5. Extracellular glucose inhibits transcription of the "lac" operon by: A. strengthening the binding of repressor to the operator. B. weakening the binding of repressor to the operator. C. inhibiting RNA polymerase from opening the strands of DNA to initiate transcription. D. reducting the levels of intracellular cAMP. E. allowing high levels of adenylyl cyclase activity. 6. Most of the pioneering studies of molecular genetics were performed in E. coli. This organism has many characteristics that make it an ideal experimental model for molecular genetic investigations. Which of the following is NOT an important characteristic that makes E. coli a strong model organism? A. E. coli is easy to grow in the laboratory. B. E. coli divides rapidly. C. E. coli is a bacterium. D. Mutants are easy to isolate in E. coli. E. The genetic rules used in E. coli are essentially the same in all other organisms. 7. Why are the genes involved in lactose metabolism considered to be an operon? A. They occupy adjacent locations on the E. coli chromosome. B. They have a similar function. C. They are all required for normal cell function. D. They are under the control of the same promoter. 8. The "trp" operon encodes genes for tryptophan biosynthesis and is regulated by: A. tryptophan, the "trp" repressor, transcriptional attenuation. B. the concentration of glucose, transcriptional attenuation. C. the cell cycle (growth), the "trp" repressor. 9. Which of the following statements regarding transposons is NOT true? A. Transposons are genes that encode sex pili and enable plasmid transfers between bacteria. B. Transposons are found in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes. C. Transposons can move from a plasmids to the bacteria circular chromosome. D. Transposons may replicate at an original site and insert a copy at another site. E. Transposons may carry only the genes for insertion. 10. The process by which host cell DNA is accidentally packaged within a phage capsid and transferred to another cell instead of the phage DNA is called A. Translocation B. Conjugation C. Transduction D. Transformation 11. When biologists wish to study the internal ultrastructure of cells, they most likely would use A. a scanning electron microscope. B. a transmission electronic microscope. C. a light microscope. D. A and C only. E. A, B, and C. 12. In the fractionation of homogenized cells using centrifugation, the primary factor that determines whether a specific cellular component ends up in the supernatant or the pellet is A. the size and weight of the component. B. the percentage of carbohydrates in the component. C. the presence or absence of lipids in the component. D. the number of enzymes in the fraction. E. the relative solubility of the component. 13. Which of the following does not contain functional ribosomes? A. a nucleolus. B. a plant mitochondrion. C. an animal mitochondrion. D. a prokaryotic cell. E. a chloroplast. 14. Which of the following structures is most directly associated with the secretion of compounds that will become part of the plant cell wall? A. Golgi apparatus. B. rough ER. C. Golgi-derived vesicles. D. plasmodesmata. E. smooth ER. 15. The fact that the outer membrane of the nuclear envelope has bound ribosomes allows one to most reliably conclude that A. Small vesicles from the Golgi fuse with the nuclear envelope. B. At least some of the proteins that function in the nuclear envelope are made by the ribosomes on the nuclear envelope. C. Nuclear pore complexes contain proteins. D. The nuclear envelope is not part of the endomembrane system. E. The nuclear envelope is physically continuous with the endoplasmic reticulum. 16. The difference in lipid and protein composition between the membranes of the endomembrane system is largely determined by A. the transportation of membrane among the endomembrane system by small membrane vesicles. B. the function of the Golgi apparatus in sorting membrane components. C. the physical separation of most membranes from each other. D. the modification of the membrane components once they reach their final destination. E. the synthesis of lipids and proteins in each of the organelles of the endomembrane system. 17. Which following compartment contains enzymes that transfer hydrogen from various substrates to oxygen, producing H2O2? A. lysosome. B. vacuole. C. Mitochondrion. D. Golgi apparatus. E. peroxisome. 18. A biologist ground up some plant leaf cells and then centrifuged the mixture to fractionate the organelles. Organelles in one of the heavier fractions could produce ATP in the light, while organelles in the lighter fraction could produce ATP in the dark. The heavier and lighter fractions are most likely to contain __________________, respectively. A. chloroplasts and mitochondria. B. chloroplasts and peroxisomes. C. mitochondria and chloroplasts. D. peroxisomes and chloroplasts. E. mitochondria and peroxisomes. 19. Plasmodesmata in plant cells are most similar in function to which of the following structures in animal cells? A. desmosomes. B. gap junctions. C. tight junctions. D. extracellular matrix. E. peroxisomes. 20. Which type of cell would probably provide the best opportunity to study lysosomes? A. phagocytic white blood cell. B. muscle cell. C. nerve cell. D. leaf cell of a plant. E. bacterial cell. -- ※ 發信站: 批踢踢實業坊(ptt.cc) ◆ From: 140.112.7.214 ※ 編輯: shokanshorin 來自: 140.112.7.214 (07/10 21:58)
ALegmontnick:done 07/11 02:49
> -------------------------------------------------------------------------- < 作者: shokanshorin (上官薔凜) 看板: NTU-Exam 標題: [試題] 96上 陳俊宏 普通生物學乙上 第一次期中考 Part2 時間: Mon Jul 11 10:23:28 2011 課程名稱︰普通生物學乙上 課程性質︰必修 課程教師︰陳俊宏 開課學院:醫學院 開課系所︰醫學系 考試日期(年月日)︰2007/10/25 考試時限(分鐘):110min 是否需發放獎勵金:是 (如未明確表示,則不予發放) 21. The presence of cholesterol in the plasma membranes of some animals A. makes the animal more susceptible to circulatory disorders. B. enables the animal to remove hydrogen atoms from saturated phospholipids. C. enables the membrane to stay fluid more easily when cell temperature drops. D. makes the membrane less flexible, allowing it to sustain greater pressure from within the cell. E. enables the animal to add hydrogen atoms to unsaturated phospholipids. 22. When a membrane is freeze-fractured, the bilayer splits down the middle between the two layers of phospholipids. In an electron micrograph of a freeze-fractured emebrane, the bumps seen on the fractured surface of the membrane are A. cholesterol molecules. B. phospholipids. C. peripheral proteins. D. integral proteins. E. carbohydrates. 23. If a membrane protein in an animal cell is involved in the cotransport of glucose and sodium ions into the cell, which of the following is most likely not true? A. Sodium ions can move down their electrochemical gradient through the cotransporter whether or not glucose is present outside the cell. B. The higher sodium ion concentration outside the cell is the result of an electrogenic pump. C. A substance that blocked sodium ions from binding to the cotransport protein would also block the transport of glucose. D. The sodium ions are moving down their electrochemical gradient. E. Glucose is entering the cell against its concentration gradient. 24. What is the cause of familial hypercholesterolemia? A. defective LDL receptors on the cell membranes. B. a poorly formed lipid bilayer that cannot incorporate cholesterol into cell membrane. C. inhibition of the cholesterol active transport system in red blood cells. D. a general lack of glycolipids in the blood cell membranes. E. poor attachment of the cholesterol to the extracellular matrix of cells. 25. Which of the following processes includes all others? A. transport of an ion down its electrochemical gradient. B. facilitated diffusion. C. diffusion of a solute across a membrane. D. osmosis. E. passive transport. 26. The first law of thermodynamics states that energy can be neither created nor destroyed. For living organisms, which of the following is an important consequence of the first law? A. The energy content of an organism is constant. B. Organisms are unable to transform energy. C. The entropy of an organism decreases with time as the organism grows in complexity. D. Life does not obey the first law of thermodynamics. E. The organism ultimately must obtain all of the necessary enegy for life from its environment. 27. When 10,000 molecules of ATP are hydrolyzed to ADP and Pi in a test tube, about twice as much heat is liberated as when a cell hydrolyzes the same amount of ATP. Which of the following is the best explanation for this observation? A. Cells are open systems, but a test tube is a closed system. B. Cells convert some of the energy of ATP hydrolysis into other forms of energy besides heat. C. The reaction in cells must be catalyzed by enzymes, but the reaction in a test tube does not need enzymes. D. Cells are less efficient at heat production than nonliving systems. E. The hydrolysis of ATP in a cell produces different chemical products than does the reaction in a test tube. 28. Which of the following statements is true regarding enzyme cooperativity? A. A substrate molecule bound to an active site affects the active site of several subunits. B. A substrate binds to an active site and inhibits cooperation between enzymes in a pathway. C. Several substrate molecules can be catalyzed by the same enzyme. D. A product of a pathway serves as a competitive inhibitor of an early enzyme in the pathway. E. A multi-enzyme complex contains all the enzymes of a metabolic pathway. 29. If an enzyme has been inhibited noncompetitively, A. the ΔG for the reaction it catalyzes will always be negative. B. the active site will be occupied by the inhibitor molecule. C. the inhibitor molecule may be chemically unrelated to the substrate. D. a higher activation energy will be necessary to initiate the reaction. E. increasing the substrate concentration will increase the inhibition. 30. All of the following statetments about glycolysis are true EXCEPT: A. Glycolysis has steps involving oxidation-reduction reactions. B. The enzymes of glycolysis are located inthe sytosol of the cell. C. Glycolysis can operate in the complete absence of O2. D. The end products of glycolysis are CO2 and H2O. E. Glycolysis makes ATP exclusively through substrate-level phosphorylation. 31. All of the following are products or intermediates in glycolysis except A. 1,6-fructose bisphosphate. B. FADH2. C. NADH. D. pyruvate. E. phosphoenolpyruvate. (PEP) 32. All of the following are functions of the citric acid cycle except A. production of ATP. B. production of NADH. C. production of FADH2. D. release of carbon dioxide. E. adding electrons and protons to oxygen to form water. 33. How many reduced dinuleotides would be produced with four turns of the citric acid cycle (TCA cycle) ? A. 1 FADH2 and 4 NADH. B. 2 FADH2 and 8 NADH. C. 4 FADH2 and 12 NADH. D. 1 FAD and 4 NAD+. C. 4 FAD+ and 12 NAD+. 34. Which metabolic process is most closely associated with intracellular membranes? A. substrate-level phosphorylation. B. oxidative phosphorylation. C. glycolysis. D. the citric acid cycle. E. alcohol fermentation. 35. Assume a mitochondrion contains 58 NADH and 19 FADH2. If each of the 77 dinucleotides (58 NADH and 19 FADH2) were used, approximately how many ATP molecules could be generated as a result of oxidative phosphorylation (chemiosmosis) ? A. 36. B. 77. C. 173. D. 212. E. 1102. 36. Fuel molecules that can potentially be converted to intermediates of glycolysis and/or the citric acid cycle include A. amino acids and proteins. B. glycerol and fatty acids. C. glucose and sucrose. D. starch and glycogen. E. all of the above. 37. Your younger sister lost 15 pounds of fat on a "low carb" diet. Where did the fat go (how was is lost) ? A. Chemical energy was converted to heat and then released. B. It was released as CO2 and H2O. C. It was converted to ATP, which weighs much less than fat. D. It was broken down to amino acids and eliminated from the body. E. It was converted to urine and eliminated from the body. 38. Where do the Calvin cycle the The Krebs cycle take place? A. thylakoid membrane; mitochondrial matrix. B. chlorophyll molecule; mitochondrial inner membrane. C. cytoplasm surrounding the chloroplast; mitochondrial matrix. D. stroma of the chloroplast; mitochondrial matrix. E. chloroplast inner membrnae; mitochondrial inner membrane. 39. In the thylakoid membranes, what is the main role of the antenna pigment molecules? A. harvest photons and transfer light energy to the reaction-center chlorophyll. B. concentrate photons within the stroma. C. synthesize ATP from ADP and Pi. D. split water and release oxygen to the reaction-center chlorophyll. E. transfer electrons from ferredoxin to NADPH. 40. Some photosynthetic organisms contain chloroplasts that lack photosystem Ⅱ, yet are able to survive. The best way to detect the lack of photosystem Ⅱ in these organisms would be A. to do experiments to generate an action spectrum. B. to test for production of either sucrose or starch. C. to test for CO2 fixation in the dark. D. to determine if they have thylakoids in the chloroplast. E. to test for liberation of O2 in the light. 41. Assume a thylakoid is somehow punctured so that the interior of the thylakoid is no longer separated from the stroma. This damage will have the most direct effect on which of the following processes? A. the splitting of water. B. the absorption of light energy by chlorophyll. C. the synthesis of ATP. D. the reduction of NADP+. E. the flow of electrons from photosystem Ⅱ to photosystem Ⅰ. 42. Which of the following is (are) true of the enzyme "rubisco" ? A. It has an affinity for both O2 and CO2. B. It catalyzes a phosphorylation reaction. C. It participates in the Krebs cycle. D. A and C are true. E. A, B, and C are true. 43. CAM plants keep stomata closed in daytime, thus reducing loss of water. They can do this because they A. fix CO2 into organic acids during the night. B. use photosystem Ⅰ and Ⅱ at night. C. use the enzyme phosphofructokinase, which outcompetes rubisco for CO2. D. fix CO2 into sugars in the bundle sheath cells. E. fix CO2 into pyruvate acid in the mesophyll cells. 44. Photorespiration lowers the efficiency of photosynthesis by preventing the formation of A. RuBP carboxylase molecules. B. carbon dioxide molecules. C. ATP molecules. D. 3-phosphoglycerate molecules. E. ribulose bisphosphate molecules. 45. Which of the following conclusions does not follow from studying the absorption spectrum for chlorophyll a and the action spectrum for phtosynthesis? A. There must be accessory pigments that broaden the spectrum of light that contributes energy. B. The red and blue areas of the spectrum are most effective in driving photosynthesis. C. Chlorophyll owes its color to the absorption of green light. D. Not all wavelengths are equally effective for photosynthesis. E. Chlorophyll a has two absorption peaks. -- ※ 發信站: 批踢踢實業坊(ptt.cc) ◆ From: 140.112.7.214
ALegmontnick:done 07/11 17:04
> -------------------------------------------------------------------------- < 作者: shokanshorin (上官薔凜) 看板: NTU-Exam 標題: [試題] 96上 陳俊宏 普通生物學乙上 第一次期中考 Part3 時間: Tue Jul 12 10:09:02 2011 課程名稱︰普通生物學乙上 課程性質︰必修 課程教師︰陳俊宏 開課學院:醫學院 開課系所︰醫學系 考試日期(年月日)︰2007/10/25 考試時限(分鐘):110min 是否需發放獎勵金:是 (如未明確表示,則不予發放) 46. All of the following occur during prophase of mitosis in animal cells except A. the centrioles move toward opposite poles. B. chromosomes are duplicated. C. the nucleolus can no longer be seen. D. the nuclear envelope disappears. E. the spindle is organized. 47. What causes the decrease in the amount of cyclin at a specific point in the cell cycle? A. the binding of PDGF to receptors on the cell surface. B. its destruction by a process initiated by the activity of MPF complexes. C. the changing ratio cytoplasm to genome. D. an increase in production once the restriction point is passed. E. the cascade of increased production once its protein is phosphorylated by Cdk. 48. An enzyme that attches a phosphate group to another molecule is called a A. phosphatase. B. kinase. C. cyclase. D. phosphorylase. E. ATPase. 49. Which of the following is (are) true concerning cyclin-dependent kinase (Cdk) ? A. Cdk is inactive, or "turned off," in the presence of cyclin. B. Cdk is present throughout the cell cycle. C. Cdk is an enzyme that attaches phosphate froups to other proteins. D. Both A and B are true. E. Both B and C are true. 50. Which of the following does not occur during mitosis? A. sparation of sister chromatids. B. spindle formation. C. replication of the DNA. D. condensation of the chromosomes. E. separation of the centrosomes. 51. Which of the following statements does not apply to the Watson and Crick model of DNA? A. The distance between the strands of the helix is uniform. B. The framework of the helix consists of sugar-phosphate units of the nucleotides. C. The two strands of the helix are held together by covalent bonds. D. The purines form hydrogen bonds with pyrimidines. 52. The strands that make up NDA are antiparallel. This means that A. the twisting nature of DNA creates nonparallel strands. B. the 5' to 3' direction of one strand runs counter to the 5' to 3' direction of the other strand. C. base pairings create unequal spacing between the two DNA strands. D. one strand contains only purines and the other contains only pyrimidines. 53. Whinch enzyme catalyzes the elongation of a DNA strand in the 5' → 3' direction? A. DNA ligase. B. DNA polymerase. C. topoisomerase. D. helicase. 54. The difference between ATP and the nucleoside triphosphates used during DNA synthesis is that A. the nucleoside triphosphates have the sugar deoxyribose; ATP has the sugar ribose. B. the nucleoside triphosphates have two phosphate groups; ATP has three phosphate groups. C. ATP contains three high-energy bonds; the nucleoside triphosphates have two. D. triphosphate monomers are active in the nucleoside triphosphate, but not in ATP. 55. A new DNA strand elongates only in the 5' to 3' direction because A. DNA polymerase begins adding nucleotides at the end of the template. B. Okazaki fragments prevent elongation in the 3' to 5' direction. C. the polarity of the DNA molecule prevents addition of nucleotides at the 3' end. D. DNA polymerase can only add nucleotides to the free 3' ebd, 56. What is the role of DNA ligase in the elongation of the lagging strand during DNA replication? A. synthesize RNA nucleotides to make a primer. B. join Okazaki fragments together. C. unwind the parental double helix. D. stabilized the unwound parental DNA. 57. Individuals with the disorder xeroderma pigmentosum are hypersensitive to sunlight because their cells have an impaired ability to A. replicate DNA. B. undergo mitosis. C. repair thymine dimmers. D. recombine homologous chromosomes during meiosis. 58. After DNA replication is completed, A. each new DNA double helix consists of one old DNA strand and one new DNA strand. B. each new DNA double helix consists of new strands. C. one DNA double helix consists of two old strands and one DNA double helix consists of two new strands. D. each of the four DNA strands consists of some old strand parts and some new strand parts. 59. What is the basis for the difference in how the leading and lagging strands strands of DNA molecules are synthesized? A. The origins of replication occur only at the 5' end. B. Helicases and single-strand binding proteins work at the 5' end. C. DNA polymerase can join new nucleotides only to the 3' end of a growing strand. D. DNA ligase works only in the 3' → 5' direction. 60. Synthesis of a new DNA strand usually begins with A. an RNA primer. B. a DNA primer. C. a Okazaki fragment. D. DNA ligase. 61. A eukaryotic cell lacking active telomerase would A. be unable to take up DNA from the surrounding solution. B. be unable to identify and correct mismatched nucleotides. C. experience a gradual reduction of chromosome length with each replication cycle. D. have a greater potential to become cancerous. Ⅱ. Multiple choice questions, one question with more than one answer; 1. Which of the following statements concerning the eukaryotic chromosome is FALSE? A. It is composed of DNA and protein. B. The nucleosome is the basic structural subunit. C. The genes on each chromosome are different in different cell types. D. It consists of a single linear molecule of double-stranded DNA. E. Acitve transcription occurs on euchromatin. 2. Which of the following mechanisms is (are) used to coordinately control the expression of multiple, related genes in eukaryotic cells? A. organization of the genes into a cluster for the same local chromatin structures. B. each of the genes charing the common control elements. C. organiztion of the genes into a large operon to be transcribed as a single RNA. D. each of the genes containing a common intron. E. organiztion of the genes into the same chromosome. 3. Genomic imprinting, DNA omthylation, and histone acetylation are examples of A. genetic mutation. B. chromosomal rearrangement. C. karyotype. D. epigenetic inheritance. E. translocation. 4. The phenomenon in which RNA molecules in a cell are destroyed if they have a sequence complementary to an introduced double-stranded RNA (siRNA) is called A. RNA interference. B. RNA processing. C. RNA capping. D. RNA targeting. E. RNA splicing. 5. The activity of protein A is urgently requied in response to a specific situation in cells, but the duration for the requirement of protein A is usually very short and the presence of protein activity is harmful to cells under normal condition. Which of the following is most likely to be the regulation mechanism for protein A activity. A. changes in chromatin structure of gene A. B. initiation of transcription of gene A. C. DNA methylation on gene A. D. reversible chemical modification on protein A. E. altenative splicing of mRNA transcribed from gene A. 6. Tumor suppressor genes A. are frequently overexpressed in cancer cells. B. are cancer-causing genes introduced into cells by viruses. C. can encode proteins that promote DNA-repair or inhibit cell division. D. encode proteins that stimulate cell cycle. E. may cause cancer when dominant mutations encoding hyperactive proteins occur. 7. The incidence of cancer increase with age because A. the Ras protein is more active after age sixty. B. proteosomes become more active with age. C. telomerase becomes more active with age. D. the longer we live, the more mutations accumulate. E. tumor suppressor proteins are less active with age. 8. A genetic test to detect predisposition to cancer would likely examin the APC gene for __________ cancer and the BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes for __________ cancer. A. colorectal ; breast. B. lung ; breast. C. breast ; lung. D. colorectal ; lung. E. lung ; prostate. 9. α-globins and β-globins are classic examples of which type of DNA? A. transposons. B. simple sequence DNA. C. multigene family. D. methylated DNA. E. proto-oncogene. 10. Two eukaryotic proteins have only one domain in common but otherwise very different. Which of the following processes is most likely to have contributed to this phenomenon? A. gene duplication. B. RNA splicing. C. exon shuffling. D. histone modification. E. random point mutations. Ⅲ. 試比較真核生物與原核生物轉錄過程中訊號之差異 -- ※ 發信站: 批踢踢實業坊(ptt.cc) ◆ From: 140.112.7.214
ALegmontnick:done 07/13 22:16