Neither option seems possible, since she went last month but was/went there
for only two weeks. If she left for Japan at the end of the month, then the
question is poorly written; if not, it offers no correct answer.
http://www.englishforums.com/English/BeenGone/xrrvr/post.htm#1169400
Of course you can say "Jenny has gone to Japan for two weeks," indicating
that thereafter she will return or go somewhere else, if things go according
to plan.
(B) is not idiomatic in the example. To my ear, it would be okay were you to
delete the first sentence.
(A) would seem more natural if it were "She has now been there for two
weeks."
http://www.usingenglish.com/forum/ask-teacher/125790-been-gone.html#post622280
In my opinion, both are possible. It is now July 10th. If Jenny went to Japan
in June, say on the 26th, then the first sentence is still true. Then:
"She has been there for two weeks" is true - she went on the 26th June and
it's now 10th July, so she has been in Japan for two weeks.
If it's now July 10th, but Jenny flew on June 30th and you said:
"She has gone for two weeks" then she would be there now and would be due
back on July 14th.
--
※ 編輯: Tiunn 來自: 118.169.227.184 (07/10 18:24)